Objection of a novice on Hazrat Umar Bin Abdul Aziz (Radiyallahu Anhu)

Uqbah Bin Nafi (Radiyallahu Anhu) asked Fatimah Bint Abdul Malik (Radiyallahu Anha), who was the wife of Hazrat Umar Bin Abdul Aziz (Radiyallahu Anhu) regarding her husband, Hazrat Umar Bin Abdul Aziz (Radiyallahu Anhu). In response, he said:

"لا اعلم انه اغتسل من جنابة ولا من احتلام منذ استخلفه الله تعالى حتى قبضه"

"I do not know if he made Ghusl of Janaabat or Ghusl of Ihtilaam (wet dream) since Allah Ta’ala made him Khalifa until He took his soul."

(Al Mirqaat comment on Al-Mishkaat by Mullah Ali Al-Qaari)

The author of Al Mishkaat, Sheikh Waliyuddeen Al-Khateeb also mentioned this fact in his اكمال فى اسماء الرجال (Ikmaal Fi Asma-Ir-Rijaal). So, what is wrong if Sheikh-ul-Hadith, Hazrat Maulana Zakariyya (Rahmatullahi Alayh) has mentioned it in his Fazaa'il-e-A'maal that a novice has to make an objection about it? He has just mentioned the way that Hazrat Umar Bin Abdul Aziz' (Radiyallahu Anhu) conducted himself with his wife during his reign.

If this is a reason for that novice to object on the Sheik-ul-Hadith Maulana Zakariyya (Rahmatullahi Alayh), then he must also object on Imam Bukhari (Rahmatullahi Alayh) and all the other scholars of Hadith because they have also mentioned a similar case for the Sahaabi Abdullah Bin 'Amr (Radiyallahu Anhu) who was fully engaged in Ibaadat day and night and did not approach his wife.

In general, this is not a reason to object on the person who has reported this. However, in reality, isn't that an objection on Hazrat Umar Bin Abdul Aziz (Radiyallahu Anhu)? This novice claims to know Deen more than Hazrat Umar Bin Abdul Aziz (Radiyallahu Anhu). He ignores to know that intimacy is the right of both husband and wife. It is they who decide its frequency. A woman can forgo her right of intimacy. In this case, there is no law that can force the man to be intimate with his wife. Didn’t Hazrat Saudah (Radiyallahu Anha) forgo her turn in favour of Hazrat Aisha (Radiyallahu Anha)? So what is wrong if Hazrat Umar Bin Abdul Aziz (Radiyallahu Anhu) did not have intimacy with his wife during his Khilaafat following an agreement between the two concerned parties?

It is impossible that a person like Hazrat Umar Bin Abdul Aziz (Rahmatullahi Alayh) could have deprived his wife of her right if she maintained her claim. If it was such, it must have been such by mutual consent which is completely permissible and does not require the arbitration of any novice.

[English version of "Objection ene novice lors Hazrat 'Oumar Bin Abdul Azize (R)" – Al Jamiat – Vol.3 No.10]